If you’ve read my other posts you’ll know that my husband recently had surgery for a hernia. This surgery was done only a month (#$@!) before our pre-existing waiting period was going to be over. So now the Ins. co. is trying to decide if they should pay it or not.
I’m in a total panic here because the surgery, anesthesia and all that amounts to over $11,000. That’s money we do not have. I’m not to blame for all of this but in the end if we have to pay I’m going to be the one partially responsible for it. It’s bad enough we’ll have to pay 10% when my husband is going to be out of work for a few more weeks.
So what I am utterly confused about is the definition for “pre-existing condition”. Our handbook says this:
Pre-Existing Condition – A condition
(mental or physical) which was present and for
which medical advice, diagnosis, care or
treatment was recommended or received within 6
Months of the period ending on your Enrollment
Date. Pregnancy is not considered a Pre-Existing
Condition. Genetic information may not be used
as a condition in the absence of a diagnosis.
The word “within” which I put in bold is really throwing me off. Can anyone interpret this?